“My boss was furious with me and I have been fired” vs. “My boss was furious with me and I was fired”...

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“My boss was furious with me and I have been fired” vs. “My boss was furious with me and I was fired”



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I have a question and I hope you can help me. I've been learning English for many years but I'm still struggling with the difference between simple past and present perfect.



For example this sentence here:



"By the time I got to the office, the meeting (begin, already) had already begun without me. My boss (be) was furious with me and I (be) was fired."



Can I also say "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired."?



I lately read an article in the business insider with the topic "What to do right after you've been fired?". Could I say "What to do right after you got fired?" too?



My native language is German and for me both sounds perfectly fine when I just don't seem to get the difference. Are both sentences right and if so what exactly is the difference?



Help would be very much appreciated.



Thank you!










share|improve this question









New contributor




Heda is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
















  • 1





    Did you mean "What to do right after you got fired" ?

    – jonathanjo
    22 hours ago








  • 1





    Yes indeed that’s what I meant. The „t“ probably got lost. :D

    – Heda
    21 hours ago











  • What to do right after you get fired ( advice for a future eventuality, in general) or what did you do right after you got fired ( a specific person in the past)

    – anouk
    20 hours ago













  • The good news is you're struggling with concepts that flummox most native speakers.

    – Strawberry
    2 hours ago


















11















I have a question and I hope you can help me. I've been learning English for many years but I'm still struggling with the difference between simple past and present perfect.



For example this sentence here:



"By the time I got to the office, the meeting (begin, already) had already begun without me. My boss (be) was furious with me and I (be) was fired."



Can I also say "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired."?



I lately read an article in the business insider with the topic "What to do right after you've been fired?". Could I say "What to do right after you got fired?" too?



My native language is German and for me both sounds perfectly fine when I just don't seem to get the difference. Are both sentences right and if so what exactly is the difference?



Help would be very much appreciated.



Thank you!










share|improve this question









New contributor




Heda is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
















  • 1





    Did you mean "What to do right after you got fired" ?

    – jonathanjo
    22 hours ago








  • 1





    Yes indeed that’s what I meant. The „t“ probably got lost. :D

    – Heda
    21 hours ago











  • What to do right after you get fired ( advice for a future eventuality, in general) or what did you do right after you got fired ( a specific person in the past)

    – anouk
    20 hours ago













  • The good news is you're struggling with concepts that flummox most native speakers.

    – Strawberry
    2 hours ago














11












11








11


2






I have a question and I hope you can help me. I've been learning English for many years but I'm still struggling with the difference between simple past and present perfect.



For example this sentence here:



"By the time I got to the office, the meeting (begin, already) had already begun without me. My boss (be) was furious with me and I (be) was fired."



Can I also say "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired."?



I lately read an article in the business insider with the topic "What to do right after you've been fired?". Could I say "What to do right after you got fired?" too?



My native language is German and for me both sounds perfectly fine when I just don't seem to get the difference. Are both sentences right and if so what exactly is the difference?



Help would be very much appreciated.



Thank you!










share|improve this question









New contributor




Heda is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












I have a question and I hope you can help me. I've been learning English for many years but I'm still struggling with the difference between simple past and present perfect.



For example this sentence here:



"By the time I got to the office, the meeting (begin, already) had already begun without me. My boss (be) was furious with me and I (be) was fired."



Can I also say "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired."?



I lately read an article in the business insider with the topic "What to do right after you've been fired?". Could I say "What to do right after you got fired?" too?



My native language is German and for me both sounds perfectly fine when I just don't seem to get the difference. Are both sentences right and if so what exactly is the difference?



Help would be very much appreciated.



Thank you!







grammar past-tense perfect-constructions






share|improve this question









New contributor




Heda is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|improve this question









New contributor




Heda is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 15 hours ago









Alsee

20313




20313






New contributor




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asked yesterday









HedaHeda

6315




6315




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New contributor





Heda is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






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Check out our Code of Conduct.








  • 1





    Did you mean "What to do right after you got fired" ?

    – jonathanjo
    22 hours ago








  • 1





    Yes indeed that’s what I meant. The „t“ probably got lost. :D

    – Heda
    21 hours ago











  • What to do right after you get fired ( advice for a future eventuality, in general) or what did you do right after you got fired ( a specific person in the past)

    – anouk
    20 hours ago













  • The good news is you're struggling with concepts that flummox most native speakers.

    – Strawberry
    2 hours ago














  • 1





    Did you mean "What to do right after you got fired" ?

    – jonathanjo
    22 hours ago








  • 1





    Yes indeed that’s what I meant. The „t“ probably got lost. :D

    – Heda
    21 hours ago











  • What to do right after you get fired ( advice for a future eventuality, in general) or what did you do right after you got fired ( a specific person in the past)

    – anouk
    20 hours ago













  • The good news is you're struggling with concepts that flummox most native speakers.

    – Strawberry
    2 hours ago








1




1





Did you mean "What to do right after you got fired" ?

– jonathanjo
22 hours ago







Did you mean "What to do right after you got fired" ?

– jonathanjo
22 hours ago






1




1





Yes indeed that’s what I meant. The „t“ probably got lost. :D

– Heda
21 hours ago





Yes indeed that’s what I meant. The „t“ probably got lost. :D

– Heda
21 hours ago













What to do right after you get fired ( advice for a future eventuality, in general) or what did you do right after you got fired ( a specific person in the past)

– anouk
20 hours ago







What to do right after you get fired ( advice for a future eventuality, in general) or what did you do right after you got fired ( a specific person in the past)

– anouk
20 hours ago















The good news is you're struggling with concepts that flummox most native speakers.

– Strawberry
2 hours ago





The good news is you're struggling with concepts that flummox most native speakers.

– Strawberry
2 hours ago










7 Answers
7






active

oldest

votes


















5














If the speaker were talking to someone soon after the firing, the "was...have been" construction would be appropriate.



The "have been" verb is in the present perfect progressive tense, which describes an action that began in the past and continues in the present, and may continue in the future. The speaker has been fired, so that is almost certainly going to continue!



This usage is right in the recent-firing case because the status of being fired and accepting it is still on the speaker's mind as being processed but isn't over yet.



"Was fired" is a usage that says, yes, the person got fired at that past point, and they've processed that and have moved on.



Compare "I have been dumped by my paramour" (still dealing with it) and "I was dumped" (that's in my past now and I've handled it).






share|improve this answer



















  • 5





    It's NOT perfect progressive, but simple perfect. The progressive way would have been I have been being fired... which sounds, to me, plainly peculiar.

    – iBug
    9 hours ago













  • @iBug: It only sounds weird because of the double copula. If you do it with an active verb instead of a stative verb, it's perfectly reasonable: I have been eating.

    – Kevin
    9 hours ago






  • 4





    @Kevin Yep. But anyway, I've been fired should be simple present perfect and not progressive, which is the main point I'm standing.

    – iBug
    8 hours ago











  • By comparison, you could use "it has been fired" of a clay pot for all time, since in that case the state of "being fired" is a permanent thing (hardened clay).

    – TripeHound
    3 hours ago



















13














The first thing to realise is that in most cases, whether or not to use the present perfect is a free choice: it depends on how you are choosing to relate the events to the present circumstances.



If you choose to use the perfect, you are expressing that the event which happened had some relevance to the present time. What that relevance is depends on many things: it might be that the event was very recent; it might be that it created a state which is still continuing; it might be that it is seen as part of a series of events which are still continuing; it might be that it has consequences now.



In this case, if you choose the present perfect, you are saying that being fired is relevant to the present: probably that you are in the state of having been fired, as Davo says. In this case "my boss was angry with me and I've been fired" probably means that this is very recent - today or maybe yesterday. If it was longer ago, I would have expected "and I was fired". But not necessarily: if you are choosing to emphasise the fact that you are still feeling the consequences of the firing, you might choose "I have been fired" even if it was much longer ago.






share|improve this answer
























  • Re: "whether or not to use the present perfect is a free choice": I would avoid the term free in this context, because it suggests that the two versions are equivalent. (See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Free_variation.) As you go on to explain, they are not: they differ in how they relate the events to the present circumstances. In some cases, the difference is extreme enough to imply materially different facts.

    – ruakh
    20 hours ago








  • 1





    @ruakh: my point is that in most cases (not all) you can describe the same objective events either way.

    – Colin Fine
    16 hours ago











  • I'm not disagreeing with your point, I'm just suggesting that you not use the word "free" this way.

    – ruakh
    14 hours ago



















6














Both are fine.




...and I was fired.




This explains what happened in the past - you were fired.




...and I have been fired.




This explains your current situation - you are in a state of having been fired.






share|improve this answer
























  • I would say they have a different shade of meaning--the first implies the firing was immediate, while the second suggests it happened at a later time before the present.

    – eyeballfrog
    22 hours ago











  • @Davo I'd disagree with your second use. For a person, "being fired" is essentially a transitory thing that takes you from an ongoing state of being in work, to an ongoing state of being out of work. You could use "I have been fired" only in the immediate aftermath; from then it would be "I was fired". By comparison, it would be OK to talk of a clay pot as "it has been fired" for all time since in that case "being fired" is a permanent state (hardened clay).

    – TripeHound
    3 hours ago



















6















Can I also say "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired."?




That's an error, but it's not a grammatical error, more of a style error. "My boss was furious" is simple past. "I have been fired" is present perfect. Present perfect is a mixture of past and present; it discusses things that happened in the past, but does so with respect to the current situation. "I have been fired" means "My current state is fired". While the firing happened in the past, the focus is on the current state of unemployment. Thus, this breaks up the connection between the two clauses. "My boss was furious with me and I was fired" presents the two clauses as two connected facts: my boss was furious -> my firing resulted. "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired" breaks up the flow and makes these sound like two random facts you've decided to put in one sentence, rather than causally related.




Could I say "What to do right after you go fired?" too?




No, "go" can't be used that way. You can say "What to do right after you get fired?" or "What to do right after you are fired?"



You might want to post this on the German SE to get the perspective of people fluent in both languages as to how they compare.






share|improve this answer
























  • Just to add concerning German language. No, also in standard German the use of Vergangenheit would be an error due to the same reason. It is just that Bavarian dialects do not have another choice, because Mitvergangenheit does not really exist there.

    – rexkogitans
    19 hours ago



















2














Your sentence is set in the past "By the time I got to the office...". That is why the past tense is used, I think. There is also a sequence of events:
1.the meeting began 2.you got there late 3.boss was furious 4.you got fired. Past simple is also used for sequence in the past.



"I have been fired" could be used to announce this recent fact (announcement of news) which is on your mind now because it affects the present = you have to look for a new job.



"when you have been fired" is a passive sentence. Someone else has fired you, you have been fired by your boss.






share|improve this answer

































    1














    The answer depends on what language you are asking about.



    In English, "...have been..." is a statement about the present as well as the past. It talks not only about what happened, but also about what the state of affairs is now. For instance, in English, "The software has been installed" means "The software is in a state of having-been-installed" - or, to be less eccentric about it, it means that both (1) "The software was installed" and (2) "The software is still installed". On the other hand, in English, "...was..." is a statement purely about the past. It says nothing about the present.



    In American, this distinction is rarely made. The form "...have been..." is rarely used, and "...was..." usually replaces it. This often causes confusion. For instance, when an American-speaking computer pops up a message saying "The software was installed", an English-speaker will think "Why did it not say the software has been installed? Does it mean that the software was installed but then something went wrong afterwards?".



    So in your case, as a foreigner, the best thing is to learn the more precise distinction - thus, using "have been" if you have been fired and are still fired and it happened recently, and "was" if you are talking about a more distant past, or you already have another job. This is correct English, and speakers of American will understand it without thinking it strange.



    (Interestingly, there is exactly the same Atlantic split in Spanish: in Europe, me han despedido means it was recent and I haven't got another job since, while me dispidieron means it was further in the past or I do have another job; in Latin America, they use me dispidieron for everything).






    share|improve this answer
























    • You beat me explaining the difference between UK English vs US English, +1

      – Rui F Ribeiro
      16 mins ago



















    0














    I agree with (most) other posters that both sentences are grammatically fine. However, I think there is an additional distinction which hasn't yet been mentioned. In




    my boss was furious with me and I was fired




    you are using exactly the same tense for both things, and this suggests that they happened at the same time.



    However, in




    my boss was furious with me and I have been fired




    you are using the past progressive for the fury (this was happening then, when you were late for the meeting) followed by the present perfect for the firing (that has happened by now). The suggestion is that your boss was furious, and at some point between then and now you got fired.






    share|improve this answer
























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      7 Answers
      7






      active

      oldest

      votes








      7 Answers
      7






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      5














      If the speaker were talking to someone soon after the firing, the "was...have been" construction would be appropriate.



      The "have been" verb is in the present perfect progressive tense, which describes an action that began in the past and continues in the present, and may continue in the future. The speaker has been fired, so that is almost certainly going to continue!



      This usage is right in the recent-firing case because the status of being fired and accepting it is still on the speaker's mind as being processed but isn't over yet.



      "Was fired" is a usage that says, yes, the person got fired at that past point, and they've processed that and have moved on.



      Compare "I have been dumped by my paramour" (still dealing with it) and "I was dumped" (that's in my past now and I've handled it).






      share|improve this answer



















      • 5





        It's NOT perfect progressive, but simple perfect. The progressive way would have been I have been being fired... which sounds, to me, plainly peculiar.

        – iBug
        9 hours ago













      • @iBug: It only sounds weird because of the double copula. If you do it with an active verb instead of a stative verb, it's perfectly reasonable: I have been eating.

        – Kevin
        9 hours ago






      • 4





        @Kevin Yep. But anyway, I've been fired should be simple present perfect and not progressive, which is the main point I'm standing.

        – iBug
        8 hours ago











      • By comparison, you could use "it has been fired" of a clay pot for all time, since in that case the state of "being fired" is a permanent thing (hardened clay).

        – TripeHound
        3 hours ago
















      5














      If the speaker were talking to someone soon after the firing, the "was...have been" construction would be appropriate.



      The "have been" verb is in the present perfect progressive tense, which describes an action that began in the past and continues in the present, and may continue in the future. The speaker has been fired, so that is almost certainly going to continue!



      This usage is right in the recent-firing case because the status of being fired and accepting it is still on the speaker's mind as being processed but isn't over yet.



      "Was fired" is a usage that says, yes, the person got fired at that past point, and they've processed that and have moved on.



      Compare "I have been dumped by my paramour" (still dealing with it) and "I was dumped" (that's in my past now and I've handled it).






      share|improve this answer



















      • 5





        It's NOT perfect progressive, but simple perfect. The progressive way would have been I have been being fired... which sounds, to me, plainly peculiar.

        – iBug
        9 hours ago













      • @iBug: It only sounds weird because of the double copula. If you do it with an active verb instead of a stative verb, it's perfectly reasonable: I have been eating.

        – Kevin
        9 hours ago






      • 4





        @Kevin Yep. But anyway, I've been fired should be simple present perfect and not progressive, which is the main point I'm standing.

        – iBug
        8 hours ago











      • By comparison, you could use "it has been fired" of a clay pot for all time, since in that case the state of "being fired" is a permanent thing (hardened clay).

        – TripeHound
        3 hours ago














      5












      5








      5







      If the speaker were talking to someone soon after the firing, the "was...have been" construction would be appropriate.



      The "have been" verb is in the present perfect progressive tense, which describes an action that began in the past and continues in the present, and may continue in the future. The speaker has been fired, so that is almost certainly going to continue!



      This usage is right in the recent-firing case because the status of being fired and accepting it is still on the speaker's mind as being processed but isn't over yet.



      "Was fired" is a usage that says, yes, the person got fired at that past point, and they've processed that and have moved on.



      Compare "I have been dumped by my paramour" (still dealing with it) and "I was dumped" (that's in my past now and I've handled it).






      share|improve this answer













      If the speaker were talking to someone soon after the firing, the "was...have been" construction would be appropriate.



      The "have been" verb is in the present perfect progressive tense, which describes an action that began in the past and continues in the present, and may continue in the future. The speaker has been fired, so that is almost certainly going to continue!



      This usage is right in the recent-firing case because the status of being fired and accepting it is still on the speaker's mind as being processed but isn't over yet.



      "Was fired" is a usage that says, yes, the person got fired at that past point, and they've processed that and have moved on.



      Compare "I have been dumped by my paramour" (still dealing with it) and "I was dumped" (that's in my past now and I've handled it).







      share|improve this answer












      share|improve this answer



      share|improve this answer










      answered 17 hours ago









      Joe McMahonJoe McMahon

      37916




      37916








      • 5





        It's NOT perfect progressive, but simple perfect. The progressive way would have been I have been being fired... which sounds, to me, plainly peculiar.

        – iBug
        9 hours ago













      • @iBug: It only sounds weird because of the double copula. If you do it with an active verb instead of a stative verb, it's perfectly reasonable: I have been eating.

        – Kevin
        9 hours ago






      • 4





        @Kevin Yep. But anyway, I've been fired should be simple present perfect and not progressive, which is the main point I'm standing.

        – iBug
        8 hours ago











      • By comparison, you could use "it has been fired" of a clay pot for all time, since in that case the state of "being fired" is a permanent thing (hardened clay).

        – TripeHound
        3 hours ago














      • 5





        It's NOT perfect progressive, but simple perfect. The progressive way would have been I have been being fired... which sounds, to me, plainly peculiar.

        – iBug
        9 hours ago













      • @iBug: It only sounds weird because of the double copula. If you do it with an active verb instead of a stative verb, it's perfectly reasonable: I have been eating.

        – Kevin
        9 hours ago






      • 4





        @Kevin Yep. But anyway, I've been fired should be simple present perfect and not progressive, which is the main point I'm standing.

        – iBug
        8 hours ago











      • By comparison, you could use "it has been fired" of a clay pot for all time, since in that case the state of "being fired" is a permanent thing (hardened clay).

        – TripeHound
        3 hours ago








      5




      5





      It's NOT perfect progressive, but simple perfect. The progressive way would have been I have been being fired... which sounds, to me, plainly peculiar.

      – iBug
      9 hours ago







      It's NOT perfect progressive, but simple perfect. The progressive way would have been I have been being fired... which sounds, to me, plainly peculiar.

      – iBug
      9 hours ago















      @iBug: It only sounds weird because of the double copula. If you do it with an active verb instead of a stative verb, it's perfectly reasonable: I have been eating.

      – Kevin
      9 hours ago





      @iBug: It only sounds weird because of the double copula. If you do it with an active verb instead of a stative verb, it's perfectly reasonable: I have been eating.

      – Kevin
      9 hours ago




      4




      4





      @Kevin Yep. But anyway, I've been fired should be simple present perfect and not progressive, which is the main point I'm standing.

      – iBug
      8 hours ago





      @Kevin Yep. But anyway, I've been fired should be simple present perfect and not progressive, which is the main point I'm standing.

      – iBug
      8 hours ago













      By comparison, you could use "it has been fired" of a clay pot for all time, since in that case the state of "being fired" is a permanent thing (hardened clay).

      – TripeHound
      3 hours ago





      By comparison, you could use "it has been fired" of a clay pot for all time, since in that case the state of "being fired" is a permanent thing (hardened clay).

      – TripeHound
      3 hours ago













      13














      The first thing to realise is that in most cases, whether or not to use the present perfect is a free choice: it depends on how you are choosing to relate the events to the present circumstances.



      If you choose to use the perfect, you are expressing that the event which happened had some relevance to the present time. What that relevance is depends on many things: it might be that the event was very recent; it might be that it created a state which is still continuing; it might be that it is seen as part of a series of events which are still continuing; it might be that it has consequences now.



      In this case, if you choose the present perfect, you are saying that being fired is relevant to the present: probably that you are in the state of having been fired, as Davo says. In this case "my boss was angry with me and I've been fired" probably means that this is very recent - today or maybe yesterday. If it was longer ago, I would have expected "and I was fired". But not necessarily: if you are choosing to emphasise the fact that you are still feeling the consequences of the firing, you might choose "I have been fired" even if it was much longer ago.






      share|improve this answer
























      • Re: "whether or not to use the present perfect is a free choice": I would avoid the term free in this context, because it suggests that the two versions are equivalent. (See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Free_variation.) As you go on to explain, they are not: they differ in how they relate the events to the present circumstances. In some cases, the difference is extreme enough to imply materially different facts.

        – ruakh
        20 hours ago








      • 1





        @ruakh: my point is that in most cases (not all) you can describe the same objective events either way.

        – Colin Fine
        16 hours ago











      • I'm not disagreeing with your point, I'm just suggesting that you not use the word "free" this way.

        – ruakh
        14 hours ago
















      13














      The first thing to realise is that in most cases, whether or not to use the present perfect is a free choice: it depends on how you are choosing to relate the events to the present circumstances.



      If you choose to use the perfect, you are expressing that the event which happened had some relevance to the present time. What that relevance is depends on many things: it might be that the event was very recent; it might be that it created a state which is still continuing; it might be that it is seen as part of a series of events which are still continuing; it might be that it has consequences now.



      In this case, if you choose the present perfect, you are saying that being fired is relevant to the present: probably that you are in the state of having been fired, as Davo says. In this case "my boss was angry with me and I've been fired" probably means that this is very recent - today or maybe yesterday. If it was longer ago, I would have expected "and I was fired". But not necessarily: if you are choosing to emphasise the fact that you are still feeling the consequences of the firing, you might choose "I have been fired" even if it was much longer ago.






      share|improve this answer
























      • Re: "whether or not to use the present perfect is a free choice": I would avoid the term free in this context, because it suggests that the two versions are equivalent. (See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Free_variation.) As you go on to explain, they are not: they differ in how they relate the events to the present circumstances. In some cases, the difference is extreme enough to imply materially different facts.

        – ruakh
        20 hours ago








      • 1





        @ruakh: my point is that in most cases (not all) you can describe the same objective events either way.

        – Colin Fine
        16 hours ago











      • I'm not disagreeing with your point, I'm just suggesting that you not use the word "free" this way.

        – ruakh
        14 hours ago














      13












      13








      13







      The first thing to realise is that in most cases, whether or not to use the present perfect is a free choice: it depends on how you are choosing to relate the events to the present circumstances.



      If you choose to use the perfect, you are expressing that the event which happened had some relevance to the present time. What that relevance is depends on many things: it might be that the event was very recent; it might be that it created a state which is still continuing; it might be that it is seen as part of a series of events which are still continuing; it might be that it has consequences now.



      In this case, if you choose the present perfect, you are saying that being fired is relevant to the present: probably that you are in the state of having been fired, as Davo says. In this case "my boss was angry with me and I've been fired" probably means that this is very recent - today or maybe yesterday. If it was longer ago, I would have expected "and I was fired". But not necessarily: if you are choosing to emphasise the fact that you are still feeling the consequences of the firing, you might choose "I have been fired" even if it was much longer ago.






      share|improve this answer













      The first thing to realise is that in most cases, whether or not to use the present perfect is a free choice: it depends on how you are choosing to relate the events to the present circumstances.



      If you choose to use the perfect, you are expressing that the event which happened had some relevance to the present time. What that relevance is depends on many things: it might be that the event was very recent; it might be that it created a state which is still continuing; it might be that it is seen as part of a series of events which are still continuing; it might be that it has consequences now.



      In this case, if you choose the present perfect, you are saying that being fired is relevant to the present: probably that you are in the state of having been fired, as Davo says. In this case "my boss was angry with me and I've been fired" probably means that this is very recent - today or maybe yesterday. If it was longer ago, I would have expected "and I was fired". But not necessarily: if you are choosing to emphasise the fact that you are still feeling the consequences of the firing, you might choose "I have been fired" even if it was much longer ago.







      share|improve this answer












      share|improve this answer



      share|improve this answer










      answered 23 hours ago









      Colin FineColin Fine

      32.3k24562




      32.3k24562













      • Re: "whether or not to use the present perfect is a free choice": I would avoid the term free in this context, because it suggests that the two versions are equivalent. (See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Free_variation.) As you go on to explain, they are not: they differ in how they relate the events to the present circumstances. In some cases, the difference is extreme enough to imply materially different facts.

        – ruakh
        20 hours ago








      • 1





        @ruakh: my point is that in most cases (not all) you can describe the same objective events either way.

        – Colin Fine
        16 hours ago











      • I'm not disagreeing with your point, I'm just suggesting that you not use the word "free" this way.

        – ruakh
        14 hours ago



















      • Re: "whether or not to use the present perfect is a free choice": I would avoid the term free in this context, because it suggests that the two versions are equivalent. (See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Free_variation.) As you go on to explain, they are not: they differ in how they relate the events to the present circumstances. In some cases, the difference is extreme enough to imply materially different facts.

        – ruakh
        20 hours ago








      • 1





        @ruakh: my point is that in most cases (not all) you can describe the same objective events either way.

        – Colin Fine
        16 hours ago











      • I'm not disagreeing with your point, I'm just suggesting that you not use the word "free" this way.

        – ruakh
        14 hours ago

















      Re: "whether or not to use the present perfect is a free choice": I would avoid the term free in this context, because it suggests that the two versions are equivalent. (See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Free_variation.) As you go on to explain, they are not: they differ in how they relate the events to the present circumstances. In some cases, the difference is extreme enough to imply materially different facts.

      – ruakh
      20 hours ago







      Re: "whether or not to use the present perfect is a free choice": I would avoid the term free in this context, because it suggests that the two versions are equivalent. (See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Free_variation.) As you go on to explain, they are not: they differ in how they relate the events to the present circumstances. In some cases, the difference is extreme enough to imply materially different facts.

      – ruakh
      20 hours ago






      1




      1





      @ruakh: my point is that in most cases (not all) you can describe the same objective events either way.

      – Colin Fine
      16 hours ago





      @ruakh: my point is that in most cases (not all) you can describe the same objective events either way.

      – Colin Fine
      16 hours ago













      I'm not disagreeing with your point, I'm just suggesting that you not use the word "free" this way.

      – ruakh
      14 hours ago





      I'm not disagreeing with your point, I'm just suggesting that you not use the word "free" this way.

      – ruakh
      14 hours ago











      6














      Both are fine.




      ...and I was fired.




      This explains what happened in the past - you were fired.




      ...and I have been fired.




      This explains your current situation - you are in a state of having been fired.






      share|improve this answer
























      • I would say they have a different shade of meaning--the first implies the firing was immediate, while the second suggests it happened at a later time before the present.

        – eyeballfrog
        22 hours ago











      • @Davo I'd disagree with your second use. For a person, "being fired" is essentially a transitory thing that takes you from an ongoing state of being in work, to an ongoing state of being out of work. You could use "I have been fired" only in the immediate aftermath; from then it would be "I was fired". By comparison, it would be OK to talk of a clay pot as "it has been fired" for all time since in that case "being fired" is a permanent state (hardened clay).

        – TripeHound
        3 hours ago
















      6














      Both are fine.




      ...and I was fired.




      This explains what happened in the past - you were fired.




      ...and I have been fired.




      This explains your current situation - you are in a state of having been fired.






      share|improve this answer
























      • I would say they have a different shade of meaning--the first implies the firing was immediate, while the second suggests it happened at a later time before the present.

        – eyeballfrog
        22 hours ago











      • @Davo I'd disagree with your second use. For a person, "being fired" is essentially a transitory thing that takes you from an ongoing state of being in work, to an ongoing state of being out of work. You could use "I have been fired" only in the immediate aftermath; from then it would be "I was fired". By comparison, it would be OK to talk of a clay pot as "it has been fired" for all time since in that case "being fired" is a permanent state (hardened clay).

        – TripeHound
        3 hours ago














      6












      6








      6







      Both are fine.




      ...and I was fired.




      This explains what happened in the past - you were fired.




      ...and I have been fired.




      This explains your current situation - you are in a state of having been fired.






      share|improve this answer













      Both are fine.




      ...and I was fired.




      This explains what happened in the past - you were fired.




      ...and I have been fired.




      This explains your current situation - you are in a state of having been fired.







      share|improve this answer












      share|improve this answer



      share|improve this answer










      answered yesterday









      DavoDavo

      3,3431929




      3,3431929













      • I would say they have a different shade of meaning--the first implies the firing was immediate, while the second suggests it happened at a later time before the present.

        – eyeballfrog
        22 hours ago











      • @Davo I'd disagree with your second use. For a person, "being fired" is essentially a transitory thing that takes you from an ongoing state of being in work, to an ongoing state of being out of work. You could use "I have been fired" only in the immediate aftermath; from then it would be "I was fired". By comparison, it would be OK to talk of a clay pot as "it has been fired" for all time since in that case "being fired" is a permanent state (hardened clay).

        – TripeHound
        3 hours ago



















      • I would say they have a different shade of meaning--the first implies the firing was immediate, while the second suggests it happened at a later time before the present.

        – eyeballfrog
        22 hours ago











      • @Davo I'd disagree with your second use. For a person, "being fired" is essentially a transitory thing that takes you from an ongoing state of being in work, to an ongoing state of being out of work. You could use "I have been fired" only in the immediate aftermath; from then it would be "I was fired". By comparison, it would be OK to talk of a clay pot as "it has been fired" for all time since in that case "being fired" is a permanent state (hardened clay).

        – TripeHound
        3 hours ago

















      I would say they have a different shade of meaning--the first implies the firing was immediate, while the second suggests it happened at a later time before the present.

      – eyeballfrog
      22 hours ago





      I would say they have a different shade of meaning--the first implies the firing was immediate, while the second suggests it happened at a later time before the present.

      – eyeballfrog
      22 hours ago













      @Davo I'd disagree with your second use. For a person, "being fired" is essentially a transitory thing that takes you from an ongoing state of being in work, to an ongoing state of being out of work. You could use "I have been fired" only in the immediate aftermath; from then it would be "I was fired". By comparison, it would be OK to talk of a clay pot as "it has been fired" for all time since in that case "being fired" is a permanent state (hardened clay).

      – TripeHound
      3 hours ago





      @Davo I'd disagree with your second use. For a person, "being fired" is essentially a transitory thing that takes you from an ongoing state of being in work, to an ongoing state of being out of work. You could use "I have been fired" only in the immediate aftermath; from then it would be "I was fired". By comparison, it would be OK to talk of a clay pot as "it has been fired" for all time since in that case "being fired" is a permanent state (hardened clay).

      – TripeHound
      3 hours ago











      6















      Can I also say "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired."?




      That's an error, but it's not a grammatical error, more of a style error. "My boss was furious" is simple past. "I have been fired" is present perfect. Present perfect is a mixture of past and present; it discusses things that happened in the past, but does so with respect to the current situation. "I have been fired" means "My current state is fired". While the firing happened in the past, the focus is on the current state of unemployment. Thus, this breaks up the connection between the two clauses. "My boss was furious with me and I was fired" presents the two clauses as two connected facts: my boss was furious -> my firing resulted. "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired" breaks up the flow and makes these sound like two random facts you've decided to put in one sentence, rather than causally related.




      Could I say "What to do right after you go fired?" too?




      No, "go" can't be used that way. You can say "What to do right after you get fired?" or "What to do right after you are fired?"



      You might want to post this on the German SE to get the perspective of people fluent in both languages as to how they compare.






      share|improve this answer
























      • Just to add concerning German language. No, also in standard German the use of Vergangenheit would be an error due to the same reason. It is just that Bavarian dialects do not have another choice, because Mitvergangenheit does not really exist there.

        – rexkogitans
        19 hours ago
















      6















      Can I also say "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired."?




      That's an error, but it's not a grammatical error, more of a style error. "My boss was furious" is simple past. "I have been fired" is present perfect. Present perfect is a mixture of past and present; it discusses things that happened in the past, but does so with respect to the current situation. "I have been fired" means "My current state is fired". While the firing happened in the past, the focus is on the current state of unemployment. Thus, this breaks up the connection between the two clauses. "My boss was furious with me and I was fired" presents the two clauses as two connected facts: my boss was furious -> my firing resulted. "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired" breaks up the flow and makes these sound like two random facts you've decided to put in one sentence, rather than causally related.




      Could I say "What to do right after you go fired?" too?




      No, "go" can't be used that way. You can say "What to do right after you get fired?" or "What to do right after you are fired?"



      You might want to post this on the German SE to get the perspective of people fluent in both languages as to how they compare.






      share|improve this answer
























      • Just to add concerning German language. No, also in standard German the use of Vergangenheit would be an error due to the same reason. It is just that Bavarian dialects do not have another choice, because Mitvergangenheit does not really exist there.

        – rexkogitans
        19 hours ago














      6












      6








      6








      Can I also say "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired."?




      That's an error, but it's not a grammatical error, more of a style error. "My boss was furious" is simple past. "I have been fired" is present perfect. Present perfect is a mixture of past and present; it discusses things that happened in the past, but does so with respect to the current situation. "I have been fired" means "My current state is fired". While the firing happened in the past, the focus is on the current state of unemployment. Thus, this breaks up the connection between the two clauses. "My boss was furious with me and I was fired" presents the two clauses as two connected facts: my boss was furious -> my firing resulted. "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired" breaks up the flow and makes these sound like two random facts you've decided to put in one sentence, rather than causally related.




      Could I say "What to do right after you go fired?" too?




      No, "go" can't be used that way. You can say "What to do right after you get fired?" or "What to do right after you are fired?"



      You might want to post this on the German SE to get the perspective of people fluent in both languages as to how they compare.






      share|improve this answer














      Can I also say "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired."?




      That's an error, but it's not a grammatical error, more of a style error. "My boss was furious" is simple past. "I have been fired" is present perfect. Present perfect is a mixture of past and present; it discusses things that happened in the past, but does so with respect to the current situation. "I have been fired" means "My current state is fired". While the firing happened in the past, the focus is on the current state of unemployment. Thus, this breaks up the connection between the two clauses. "My boss was furious with me and I was fired" presents the two clauses as two connected facts: my boss was furious -> my firing resulted. "My boss was furious with me and I have been fired" breaks up the flow and makes these sound like two random facts you've decided to put in one sentence, rather than causally related.




      Could I say "What to do right after you go fired?" too?




      No, "go" can't be used that way. You can say "What to do right after you get fired?" or "What to do right after you are fired?"



      You might want to post this on the German SE to get the perspective of people fluent in both languages as to how they compare.







      share|improve this answer












      share|improve this answer



      share|improve this answer










      answered 22 hours ago









      AcccumulationAcccumulation

      1,82517




      1,82517













      • Just to add concerning German language. No, also in standard German the use of Vergangenheit would be an error due to the same reason. It is just that Bavarian dialects do not have another choice, because Mitvergangenheit does not really exist there.

        – rexkogitans
        19 hours ago



















      • Just to add concerning German language. No, also in standard German the use of Vergangenheit would be an error due to the same reason. It is just that Bavarian dialects do not have another choice, because Mitvergangenheit does not really exist there.

        – rexkogitans
        19 hours ago

















      Just to add concerning German language. No, also in standard German the use of Vergangenheit would be an error due to the same reason. It is just that Bavarian dialects do not have another choice, because Mitvergangenheit does not really exist there.

      – rexkogitans
      19 hours ago





      Just to add concerning German language. No, also in standard German the use of Vergangenheit would be an error due to the same reason. It is just that Bavarian dialects do not have another choice, because Mitvergangenheit does not really exist there.

      – rexkogitans
      19 hours ago











      2














      Your sentence is set in the past "By the time I got to the office...". That is why the past tense is used, I think. There is also a sequence of events:
      1.the meeting began 2.you got there late 3.boss was furious 4.you got fired. Past simple is also used for sequence in the past.



      "I have been fired" could be used to announce this recent fact (announcement of news) which is on your mind now because it affects the present = you have to look for a new job.



      "when you have been fired" is a passive sentence. Someone else has fired you, you have been fired by your boss.






      share|improve this answer






























        2














        Your sentence is set in the past "By the time I got to the office...". That is why the past tense is used, I think. There is also a sequence of events:
        1.the meeting began 2.you got there late 3.boss was furious 4.you got fired. Past simple is also used for sequence in the past.



        "I have been fired" could be used to announce this recent fact (announcement of news) which is on your mind now because it affects the present = you have to look for a new job.



        "when you have been fired" is a passive sentence. Someone else has fired you, you have been fired by your boss.






        share|improve this answer




























          2












          2








          2







          Your sentence is set in the past "By the time I got to the office...". That is why the past tense is used, I think. There is also a sequence of events:
          1.the meeting began 2.you got there late 3.boss was furious 4.you got fired. Past simple is also used for sequence in the past.



          "I have been fired" could be used to announce this recent fact (announcement of news) which is on your mind now because it affects the present = you have to look for a new job.



          "when you have been fired" is a passive sentence. Someone else has fired you, you have been fired by your boss.






          share|improve this answer















          Your sentence is set in the past "By the time I got to the office...". That is why the past tense is used, I think. There is also a sequence of events:
          1.the meeting began 2.you got there late 3.boss was furious 4.you got fired. Past simple is also used for sequence in the past.



          "I have been fired" could be used to announce this recent fact (announcement of news) which is on your mind now because it affects the present = you have to look for a new job.



          "when you have been fired" is a passive sentence. Someone else has fired you, you have been fired by your boss.







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited 22 hours ago

























          answered 23 hours ago









          anoukanouk

          1,841414




          1,841414























              1














              The answer depends on what language you are asking about.



              In English, "...have been..." is a statement about the present as well as the past. It talks not only about what happened, but also about what the state of affairs is now. For instance, in English, "The software has been installed" means "The software is in a state of having-been-installed" - or, to be less eccentric about it, it means that both (1) "The software was installed" and (2) "The software is still installed". On the other hand, in English, "...was..." is a statement purely about the past. It says nothing about the present.



              In American, this distinction is rarely made. The form "...have been..." is rarely used, and "...was..." usually replaces it. This often causes confusion. For instance, when an American-speaking computer pops up a message saying "The software was installed", an English-speaker will think "Why did it not say the software has been installed? Does it mean that the software was installed but then something went wrong afterwards?".



              So in your case, as a foreigner, the best thing is to learn the more precise distinction - thus, using "have been" if you have been fired and are still fired and it happened recently, and "was" if you are talking about a more distant past, or you already have another job. This is correct English, and speakers of American will understand it without thinking it strange.



              (Interestingly, there is exactly the same Atlantic split in Spanish: in Europe, me han despedido means it was recent and I haven't got another job since, while me dispidieron means it was further in the past or I do have another job; in Latin America, they use me dispidieron for everything).






              share|improve this answer
























              • You beat me explaining the difference between UK English vs US English, +1

                – Rui F Ribeiro
                16 mins ago
















              1














              The answer depends on what language you are asking about.



              In English, "...have been..." is a statement about the present as well as the past. It talks not only about what happened, but also about what the state of affairs is now. For instance, in English, "The software has been installed" means "The software is in a state of having-been-installed" - or, to be less eccentric about it, it means that both (1) "The software was installed" and (2) "The software is still installed". On the other hand, in English, "...was..." is a statement purely about the past. It says nothing about the present.



              In American, this distinction is rarely made. The form "...have been..." is rarely used, and "...was..." usually replaces it. This often causes confusion. For instance, when an American-speaking computer pops up a message saying "The software was installed", an English-speaker will think "Why did it not say the software has been installed? Does it mean that the software was installed but then something went wrong afterwards?".



              So in your case, as a foreigner, the best thing is to learn the more precise distinction - thus, using "have been" if you have been fired and are still fired and it happened recently, and "was" if you are talking about a more distant past, or you already have another job. This is correct English, and speakers of American will understand it without thinking it strange.



              (Interestingly, there is exactly the same Atlantic split in Spanish: in Europe, me han despedido means it was recent and I haven't got another job since, while me dispidieron means it was further in the past or I do have another job; in Latin America, they use me dispidieron for everything).






              share|improve this answer
























              • You beat me explaining the difference between UK English vs US English, +1

                – Rui F Ribeiro
                16 mins ago














              1












              1








              1







              The answer depends on what language you are asking about.



              In English, "...have been..." is a statement about the present as well as the past. It talks not only about what happened, but also about what the state of affairs is now. For instance, in English, "The software has been installed" means "The software is in a state of having-been-installed" - or, to be less eccentric about it, it means that both (1) "The software was installed" and (2) "The software is still installed". On the other hand, in English, "...was..." is a statement purely about the past. It says nothing about the present.



              In American, this distinction is rarely made. The form "...have been..." is rarely used, and "...was..." usually replaces it. This often causes confusion. For instance, when an American-speaking computer pops up a message saying "The software was installed", an English-speaker will think "Why did it not say the software has been installed? Does it mean that the software was installed but then something went wrong afterwards?".



              So in your case, as a foreigner, the best thing is to learn the more precise distinction - thus, using "have been" if you have been fired and are still fired and it happened recently, and "was" if you are talking about a more distant past, or you already have another job. This is correct English, and speakers of American will understand it without thinking it strange.



              (Interestingly, there is exactly the same Atlantic split in Spanish: in Europe, me han despedido means it was recent and I haven't got another job since, while me dispidieron means it was further in the past or I do have another job; in Latin America, they use me dispidieron for everything).






              share|improve this answer













              The answer depends on what language you are asking about.



              In English, "...have been..." is a statement about the present as well as the past. It talks not only about what happened, but also about what the state of affairs is now. For instance, in English, "The software has been installed" means "The software is in a state of having-been-installed" - or, to be less eccentric about it, it means that both (1) "The software was installed" and (2) "The software is still installed". On the other hand, in English, "...was..." is a statement purely about the past. It says nothing about the present.



              In American, this distinction is rarely made. The form "...have been..." is rarely used, and "...was..." usually replaces it. This often causes confusion. For instance, when an American-speaking computer pops up a message saying "The software was installed", an English-speaker will think "Why did it not say the software has been installed? Does it mean that the software was installed but then something went wrong afterwards?".



              So in your case, as a foreigner, the best thing is to learn the more precise distinction - thus, using "have been" if you have been fired and are still fired and it happened recently, and "was" if you are talking about a more distant past, or you already have another job. This is correct English, and speakers of American will understand it without thinking it strange.



              (Interestingly, there is exactly the same Atlantic split in Spanish: in Europe, me han despedido means it was recent and I haven't got another job since, while me dispidieron means it was further in the past or I do have another job; in Latin America, they use me dispidieron for everything).







              share|improve this answer












              share|improve this answer



              share|improve this answer










              answered 2 hours ago









              Martin KochanskiMartin Kochanski

              1511




              1511













              • You beat me explaining the difference between UK English vs US English, +1

                – Rui F Ribeiro
                16 mins ago



















              • You beat me explaining the difference between UK English vs US English, +1

                – Rui F Ribeiro
                16 mins ago

















              You beat me explaining the difference between UK English vs US English, +1

              – Rui F Ribeiro
              16 mins ago





              You beat me explaining the difference between UK English vs US English, +1

              – Rui F Ribeiro
              16 mins ago











              0














              I agree with (most) other posters that both sentences are grammatically fine. However, I think there is an additional distinction which hasn't yet been mentioned. In




              my boss was furious with me and I was fired




              you are using exactly the same tense for both things, and this suggests that they happened at the same time.



              However, in




              my boss was furious with me and I have been fired




              you are using the past progressive for the fury (this was happening then, when you were late for the meeting) followed by the present perfect for the firing (that has happened by now). The suggestion is that your boss was furious, and at some point between then and now you got fired.






              share|improve this answer




























                0














                I agree with (most) other posters that both sentences are grammatically fine. However, I think there is an additional distinction which hasn't yet been mentioned. In




                my boss was furious with me and I was fired




                you are using exactly the same tense for both things, and this suggests that they happened at the same time.



                However, in




                my boss was furious with me and I have been fired




                you are using the past progressive for the fury (this was happening then, when you were late for the meeting) followed by the present perfect for the firing (that has happened by now). The suggestion is that your boss was furious, and at some point between then and now you got fired.






                share|improve this answer


























                  0












                  0








                  0







                  I agree with (most) other posters that both sentences are grammatically fine. However, I think there is an additional distinction which hasn't yet been mentioned. In




                  my boss was furious with me and I was fired




                  you are using exactly the same tense for both things, and this suggests that they happened at the same time.



                  However, in




                  my boss was furious with me and I have been fired




                  you are using the past progressive for the fury (this was happening then, when you were late for the meeting) followed by the present perfect for the firing (that has happened by now). The suggestion is that your boss was furious, and at some point between then and now you got fired.






                  share|improve this answer













                  I agree with (most) other posters that both sentences are grammatically fine. However, I think there is an additional distinction which hasn't yet been mentioned. In




                  my boss was furious with me and I was fired




                  you are using exactly the same tense for both things, and this suggests that they happened at the same time.



                  However, in




                  my boss was furious with me and I have been fired




                  you are using the past progressive for the fury (this was happening then, when you were late for the meeting) followed by the present perfect for the firing (that has happened by now). The suggestion is that your boss was furious, and at some point between then and now you got fired.







                  share|improve this answer












                  share|improve this answer



                  share|improve this answer










                  answered 4 hours ago









                  Especially LimeEspecially Lime

                  1,10439




                  1,10439






















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